Slobin: A preliminary distinction is drawn between Satellite framed languages (S-languages) and Verb framed languages (V-languages). The former express path description by an element associated with the main verb (like “the boy climbed up the tree”) while the latter expresses path description by the verb itself (“the boy entered the hole”) One way to bring out the differences between these two types of languages is to look at “Frog stories” - participants in a study are shown two pictures, one of which shows a boy in a tree looking into a hole (for a frog), the other shows the boy on the ground and an owl in the hole. The “frog story” is the narrative told by the participants about these two pictures. English speakers were more likely to use such phrases as “an owl POPPED UP from the hole” or “the owl CAME OUT of the hole” showing English to be an S-language. By contrast, speakers of V-languages were more likely to use phrases like “an owl EXITED the tree”.
Haspelmath: A distinction is drawn between lexemes, words as they would appear in the dictionary, and word-forms (strings separated by spaces). So for instance, the word-form ‘loved’ belongs to the lexeme ‘love’. A morpheme is defined as the smallest significant part of a single word (for example, the affix ‘ED’ in ‘lovED’ is a morpheme). Compounds are defined as complex lexemes built up from preexisting lexemes (like lipstick built up from ‘lip’ and ‘stick) - in many of these compound words the first lexeme, the ‘dependent’, is comparatively less important than the second lexeme, the ‘head’.
I found the Atkins and Levins reading the most interesting of the bunch. And I was wondering if it was possible for their to be internally caused verbs that did not pertain to people (willing agents). Both of their examples, ‘play’ and ‘speak’ were about people, but perhaps there are other verbs that do not apply to people but nevertheless have the same kind of ‘internal causation’ property such as “bloom” (when talking about a flower for instance).
I also have a question about the semantic conception of internal causation versus external causation to account for the difference between transitive verbs and intransitive verbs. According to Atkins and Levin's reading, externally caused verbs can be either intransitive verbs or transitive verbs (e.g. shake) while internally caused verbs can only be intransitive verbs (e.g. quiver). However, I can not apply this rule to Classical Chinese. For example, Jilaizhi, ze'anzhi. (Since you made those people come to your country, you should help them settle down.) Literally, this sentence can be translated as "Since come them, then settle down them". "Lai"(come) is followed by a pronoun "zhi"(them). According to Atkins and Levin's explanation, "lai"(come) should be an internally caused verb, therefore, it can only be a intransitive verb. In English, we cannot say "The king came them". However, it totally works in Classical Chinese. Why?
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